Answer: your child can still qualify as a dependent if they file their own taxes. They will need to indicate that someone else claims them as a dependent on their return.
Explanation:
yes
Yes, you can claim your child as a dependent if they file a tax return, as long as they meet the IRS criteria for being a dependent. These criteria include age, relationship, residency, and support provided.
Whether you can claim your child as a dependent on your tax return if they file a tax return themselves depends on several factors. The Internal Revenue Service (IRS) has specific criteria that determine whether someone qualifies as a dependent, including the child's age, relationship to you, residency, and income level. If your child meets the criteria to be considered your dependent according to the IRS, you can claim them on your tax return even if they file their own tax return.
However, if your child files a tax return and claims themselves as an independent, you may not be able to claim them as a dependent. Ultimately, the determination of whether you can claim your child as a dependent if they file a tax return depends on their individual circumstances and their status as a dependent according to the IRS guidelines.
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If judges rule in favor of the government over the people in cases involving
the Bill of Rights, are you now more free or less free?
Answer:
more
Explanation:
How Can We Apply For Single Status Certificate in Pakistan?
Answer:
Copy of applicant's CNIC.
Copy of mother's CNIC.
Copy of father's CNIC.
CNIC copies from 2 neibours / witnesses to confirm Single Status.
Original UnMarried Affidavit (as mentioned above)
Explanation:
Often wondered how to get UnMarried Certificate from Pakistan which also known as Single Status Certificate, Non Marriage Certificate, and Bachelorhood Certificate in Pakistan. Our expert team can assist you in issuance of your UnMarried Certificate from concerned authorities in Pakistan.
Two different steps are involved in issuance of UnMarried Certificate:
UnMarried Affidavit
Many people just need UnMarried Affidavit or Non Marriage Affidavit to prove their Single Status or Bachelorhood in many cases because issuance of UnMarried Affidavit is not that difficult comparing official UnMarried Certificate.
which stamp do lawyers prepare the single status certificate in Pakistan? Unmarried or Single Certificate in Pakistan.If you need a single or unmarried certificate. Just contact us. Getting an unmarried certificate is just a phone call away. In other words, we provide quick and easy process. Easy steps and minimal document requirements. Above all, serving with the best family lawyers in Pakistan. Our lawyers have a good practical experience. Moreover, providing easy online process. These require minimal presence and interaction of a client. Furthermore, providing online services to get an unmarried certificate from Pakistan. Mostly, Unmarried certificate is required to get married abroad or in other family cases. Therefore, helping through simple procedures to obtain an unmarried or single status certificate from Pakistan.
Usually, Certificate is prepared on a government stamp paper. A professional narration. To clarify, which describes the Single or Unmarried status. Moreover, fulfilling the requirements under the law of Pakistan. Finally, getting it approved and attested by the Ministry of Foreign Affairs of Pakistan.
In addition, the document is an affidavit on the stamp paper. This legal document is issued by the government of Pakistan. Most importantly, prepared and written by law experts and signed by close relatives. it is professionally written by expert family lawyers in Lahore Pakistan. Certainly, This needs approval by the notary public and the foreign office. Most Importantly, the document must be signed and stamped by the relevant authorities. In conclusion, this document certifies a person as single or unmarried.
Kansas passes a statute that says all corn must be grown and processed in a particular manner to avoid harmful pesticides. This statute is challenged as being unconstitutional. What are the two factors for the court to consider when deciding whether the law is constitutional
When deciding whether a statute is constitutional, the court considers the following two factors:
Substantive Due Process: The court will examine whether the statute violates substantive due process, which protects certain fundamental rights and liberties. Under substantive due process, the court evaluates whether the statute infringes on rights that are considered essential to individual autonomy, liberty, or privacy. The court may analyze if the statute impairs a fundamental right without a compelling state interest or if it is arbitrary, irrational, or lacks a reasonable basis.
Rational Basis Test: If the statute does not implicate a fundamental right, the court applies the rational basis test. The court assesses whether the statute is rationally related to a legitimate government interest. In this analysis, the court considers whether there is a reasonable connection between the objective of the law and the means chosen to achieve it. The statute will generally be upheld if there is any conceivable legitimate government interest that the law seeks to advance, even if the court disagrees with the wisdom or efficacy of the statute.
In the given scenario, the court would likely evaluate the Kansas statute based on these factors. If the statute is found to violate substantive due process or fail the rational basis test, it may be deemed unconstitutional. However, the specific analysis and outcome would depend on the arguments presented, the court's interpretation, and relevant legal precedents.
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Question 5(Multiple Choice Worth 5 points) During which phase of a trial is evidence given in the attempt to convince the judge that there is enough evidence to go to trial? arraignment preliminary hearing deposition discovery
Answer:
Preliminary hearing.
Explanation:
A preliminary hearing in criminal litigation is commonly referred to as a prelim and is the legal process of a "trial before the trial" of an accused or the defendant.
This simply means that, at the preliminary hearing, the judge using the "probable cause" legal standard, decides whether there is enough evidence to warrant the defendant to stand trial but not to determine whether he or she is guilty or innocent of the crime. Thus, no jury is present or required at this phase of trial because the defendant isn't entitled to any at the preliminary hearing.
Additionally, during the preliminary hearing phase of a trial, evidence is given in the attempt to convince the judge that there is enough evidence to go to trial. A prosecutor on behalf of the government may call witnesses to testify against the defendant and even present physical evidence to the judge, so that the case may go to trial while the defense counsel will work towards having the case dismissed by cross examining the government witnesses and disputing any evidence presented.
a recent study by the fbi found that most slain officers ________.
According to a recent FBI study, the majority of slain officers were pleasant and well-liked by their colleagues.
The FBI is a national security organization that is intelligence-driven and threat-focused, with both intelligence and law enforcement responsibilities.The FBI, as the lead agency for enforcing civil rights law, aggressively investigates hate crimes, color of law violations by public officials, human trafficking and involuntary servitude, and violations of freedom of access to clinic entrances.This federal authority is shared with the Bureau of Indian Affairs' Office of Justice Services. The FBI develops and implements strategies, programs, and policies to combat crime in Indian Country, which is under the FBI's jurisdiction. In Indian Country, the FBI's role includes program management.
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The First Amendment is the right to freedom of speech , religion and the right to peacefully assemble . You" believe there should be limitations on each or any of these rights "?
The question of limitations on First Amendment rights is a complex and controversial topic. Various legal, ethical, and societal considerations are involved in determining the extent and boundaries of these rights.
The First Amendment of the United States Constitution protects the rights to freedom of speech, religion, and peaceful assembly. These rights are considered fundamental in a democratic society and provide individuals with the freedom to express their thoughts, beliefs, and opinions.
While these rights are generally upheld, there are certain limitations imposed by law. For example, freedom of speech does not protect certain types of speech such as obscenity, incitement to violence, or defamation. Similarly, the freedom of religion does not allow practices that infringe upon the rights of others or violate laws. The right to peacefully assemble is subject to reasonable time, place, and manner restrictions to ensure public safety and order.
The question of whether there should be limitations on these rights is a matter of ongoing debate and interpretation. Some argue that certain limitations are necessary to prevent harm or protect the rights of others, while others emphasize the importance of preserving these rights without undue restrictions.
The balance between freedom of expression and societal interests is a complex and nuanced issue that continues to be discussed and decided upon by courts, lawmakers, and society as a whole.
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________ force—the highest degree of force—is considered reasonable only when used to counter an immediate threat of death or great bodily harm
Answer:
deadly force
Explanation:
Deadly force—the highest degree of force—is considered reasonable only when used to counter an immediate threat of death or great bodily harm.
What is Deadly force?Any force that could potentially cause death or serious physical harm is referred to as deadly force. Its use may only be justified under the most extreme conditions, when all other choices have failed or are impractical.
A person is justified in using lethal force if they have a good reason to believe that doing so is necessary to stop an imminent threat to their own or another person's life, a serious physical injury to another person, or the forced commission of a crime.
Thus, it is Deadly force.
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A Sargent span of control is over who:
what qualities should a supreme court justice have
A Supreme Court justice should have several qualities, including:
Legal expertise and experience: A justice should have a deep understanding of the law and legal principles. This usually means having extensive experience as a lawyer or judge.Intellectual ability: A justice should have a sharp mind, with the ability to understand complex legal arguments and apply legal principles to new and challenging situations.Fairness and impartiality: A justice should be committed to fairness and impartiality in their decisions, regardless of their personal beliefs or biases.Integrity and ethics: A justice should be of high moral character and committed to upholding the rule of law and the Constitution.Open-mindedness: A justice should be open to considering different perspectives and opinions, and be willing to change their views when presented with new information or arguments.Judicial temperament: A justice should have a calm, respectful, and thoughtful demeanor, both in and out of the courtroom, and treat all individuals with dignity and respect.Ultimately, a Supreme Court justice's role is to interpret the law and protect rights and liberties, and possessing these qualities is crucial to fulfilling this duty effectively.
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Discretionary release places great faith in the ability of the parole board members to:
a. link inmate treatment with the level of custody.
b. predict future offender behavior.
c. assess readiness for permanent release to community.
d. all of these.
Discretionary release places great faith in the ability of the parole board members to link inmate treatment with the level of custody, predict future offender behavior, and assess readiness for permanent release to community. Therefore, the correct options are D: all of these.
Discretionary release places great faith in the ability of the parole board members to:
a. Linking inmate treatment with the level of custody: Parole board members need to evaluate how an inmate's behavior and progress in treatment programs relates to their custody level. This helps determine if they are ready for a reduced level of supervision.
b. Predicting future offender behavior: The parole board members have to assess the likelihood of an inmate reoffending upon release. They need to consider various factors, such as the inmate's criminal history, behavior in prison, and participation in rehabilitation programs.
c. Assessing readiness for permanent release to the community: Parole board members must determine if an inmate has made sufficient progress in their rehabilitation and poses a low risk to the community upon release. This requires a thorough evaluation of the inmate's behavior, achievements, and overall readiness for reintegration into society.
Hence, the correct answer is option D: all of these including link inmate treatment with the level of custody, predict future offender behavior, and assess readiness for permanent release to community.
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Which case marks a change from Plessy V Ferguson in which the Supreme Court upheld the 14th amendment rights of African-Americans
Answer:
Board of Education in 1954. The Court overturned Plessy v. Ferguson, and declared that racial segregation in public schools violated the Equal Protection clause of the 14th Amendment.
Explanation:
1. When Congress overrides a Presidential veto, it:
Rejects a law the president has asked it to approve
O Passes into law a bill the president has rejected
O Asks the president to approve a bill
Overrules a decision made by the Supreme Court
Answer: B.
Explanation: When Congress overrides a veto with a 2/3 vote from both the Senate and the House, it becomes a law without the president's signature. Therefore, B will be the correct answer because the bill that the president rejected will be passed into a law.
One difference between a sole proprietorship and a partnership is that a
partnership:
A. has fewer investors and stockholders.
B. has a longer legal life span as a business.
O c. divides profits among several owners.
D. gives greater control to its founder.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Mabey
One difference between a sole proprietorship and a partnership is that a partnership gives greater control to its founder. Thus, option D is correct.
Who is a sole proprietorship?A Sole Proprietorship is a straightforward, one-owner business that is run by only an individual and is legally identical to the owner. In a company with sole proprietorship, the organization's owner is personally liable for all debts and obligations. In a partnership, a few people pool their belongings for the company and split earnings and losses.
A sole proprietorship is an unregistered, uncontrolled business that is conducted by only one person and does not distinguish between the person who owns it and the company. A sole proprietorship's owner is accountable for the debts, damage, and liabilities of the company as well as all gains.
Therefore, option D is correct.
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do all tax credit properties fall under section 504 regulations
No, not all tax credit properties fall under Section 504 regulations. Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 applies to all programs and activities receiving federal financial assistance, including HUD-assisted housing programs such as public housing and Section 8.
Tax credit properties are subject to different regulations and requirements under the Low Income Housing Tax Credit (LIHTC) program, which is administered by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) and the state housing finance agencies (HFAs).
While LIHTC properties are required to comply with certain accessibility and design standards, they may not necessarily be subject to the same requirements as Section 504. However, LIHTC properties are still subject to fair housing laws and regulations, which prohibit discrimination against individuals with disabilities.
Tax credit properties, on the other hand, are privately owned and operated affordable housing developments that receive federal tax credits in exchange for agreeing to set aside a certain number of units for low-income households. While many tax credit properties may receive other forms of federal financial assistance, not all of them do.
That being said, even if a tax credit property does not receive federal financial assistance, it is still required to comply with state and local laws regarding accessibility and accommodation for people with disabilities. In addition, some states and localities may have their own regulations that require tax credit properties to comply with Section 504 standards.
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Ned is a registered nurse who gains a certification to identify and interpret injuries for violent causes. Which type of certification has he gained?
A.
CCI
B.
CMI
C.
ACFEI
D.
CFN
E.
ABFA
Answer:
acfel
Explanation:
Answer:
The answer is D
Explanation:
absolutely not
13. Courts in the United States do not:
a. Settle controversies through applying basic law principles to merge factional circumstances
b. Interpret legislative enactments
c. Determine policies, and regulations affecting public schools
d. Determine the constitutionality of statutes
Courts in the United States do not determine policies and regulations affecting public schools, as stated in option (c).
However, they do settle controversies through applying basic law principles to merge factional circumstances, interpret legislative enactments, and determine the constitutionality of statutes.
Courts in the United States play a vital role in the legal system and have specific functions and powers. While they do not determine policies and regulations affecting public schools, as stated in option (c), they perform other important tasks.
Firstly, courts settle controversies through the application of basic law principles to merge factional circumstances. When disputes arise between parties, courts hear arguments, assess evidence, and make decisions based on legal principles to resolve the issues at hand. This process involves interpreting laws, examining facts, and applying relevant legal precedents.
Secondly, courts interpret legislative enactments. When laws are passed by legislative bodies, such as Congress or state legislatures, courts are responsible for interpreting those laws. They analyze the language, intent, and purpose of the legislation to determine its meaning and how it should be applied in specific cases.
Lastly, courts have the power to determine the constitutionality of statutes. The judiciary has the authority to review laws and assess whether they comply with the provisions of the United States Constitution. If a court finds a statute to be unconstitutional, it may declare it invalid and unenforceable.
It is important to note that while courts have significant powers, they are separate from the executive and legislative branches of government. Their role is to interpret and apply the law impartially, ensuring justice and upholding the principles of the legal system.
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professional Association of specialist in various fields of real estate activity were organized service the interest of there members which is not gererally a service expected of such organization
Passing laws to regulate brokers and salespeople is not generally a service expected of professional Association organizations. This is further explained below.
What is a Professional Association?Generally, Typically, the goals of a professional association are to advance a certain profession, protect the interests of persons and organizations involved in that field, and look out for the general public's best interests. For the purposes of taxation, a group like this one often takes the form of a nonprofit business league in the United States.
In conclusion, In most cases, professional associations are not expected to perform the function of passing regulations to govern brokers and salesmen.
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Answer:D
D. Passing laws to regulate brokers and
sales agents
Explanation:
which of the following best explains the trend depicted in the chart above? the voting rights act of 1965 a) brown v. board of education of topeka
b) imposition of a federal tax poll c) elimination of all-white primary elections d) the voting rights act of 1965
The trend depicted in the chart above can best be explained by the- D. Voting Rights Act of 1965.
What is this act?The Voting Rights Act of 1965 was signed into law by President Lyndon B. Johnson, and it aimed to eliminate the discriminatory voting practices that were prevalent in many parts of the United States.
The act prohibited the use of literacy tests and other tactics that were designed to prevent African Americans from voting, and it also authorized the federal government to oversee the administration of elections in certain areas.
As a result of this legislation, there was a significant increase in the number of African American voters, as well as a corresponding decrease in the percentage of white voters.
This trend is reflected in the chart above, which shows a dramatic shift in the racial composition of the electorate in the years following the passage of the Voting Rights Act.
Hence, the correct answer is d.
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nsc-68: united states objectives and programs for national security, 1950 question the policies expressed in the excerpt contributed most directly to debates in the united states about the
The policies expressed in NSC-68 contributed most directly to debates in the United States about national security and the appropriate strategies to address potential threats during the early years of the Cold War. These debates focused on the balance between military and diplomatic efforts, as well as the role of the United States in global affairs.
The policies expressed in NSC-68, which outlined the United States' objectives and programs for national security in 1950, contributed most directly to debates in the United States about the country's role in the Cold War.
NSC-68 called for a massive increase in military spending and emphasized the need for the United States to take a leadership role in countering the spread of communism around the world.
This led to debates about the appropriate level of military spending and the extent to which the United States should engage in global conflicts to advance its national security interests.
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Officer Tom is executing a validly obtained search warrant in Kathryn's home. The warrant gives him the right to search every room in the house but is limited to a search for automatic weapons and handguns. When he walks into the kitchen, he sees an open box filled with small plastic bags containing small pills. A closer inspection reveals that the pills are ecstasy, an illegal narcotic. May Officer Tom seize the drugs even though the warrant did not include a search for drugs. Would the drugs be admissible in court?
Answer:
Drugs would not be admissible in court.
Explanation:
A warrant is a document that authorizes a bailiff to perform certain actions on behalf of the local court. In short, so that the police of a city can make searches in a house, arrest and confiscate objects, things and people, there must be a specific warrant that authorizes the situation, otherwise the police act against the law and have their activity disregarded. .
In the case shown in the question above, we can see that there was a warrant that made it possible to search all rooms in Kathryn's house, but it is limited to a search for automatic weapons and firearms. In this case, even if the police find illegal substances, he cannot arrest them, as he does not have this authorization. If he arrested the substances, they would be disregarded in court.
Is a security officer justified to use force in response to verbal provocation alone?
A security officer is not justified to use force in response to verbal provocation alone.
A security officer is a professional who is trained to secure and protect individuals and property. Security personnel may be found in a variety of settings, including corporate offices, malls, hospitals, and other locations. These professionals are tasked with ensuring the safety of individuals and property under their supervision.
Provocation is a situation in which an individual engages in actions or makes statements that are intended to provoke or incite another person. This may include insults, threats, and other forms of verbal or physical aggression.
A reaction to a stimulus is referred to as a response. This may include a variety of physiological, emotional, and cognitive changes. In terms of behavior, a response is the way in which an individual responds to a particular situation. The response to verbal provocation by a security officer may differ based on the situation and the level of provocation.
A security officer is not justified to use force in response to verbal provocation alone. This is due to the fact that the use of force is only allowed when it is reasonable and necessary to prevent harm to oneself or others. When verbal provocation occurs, a security officer should attempt to defuse the situation verbally before resorting to the use of force.
Furthermore, if a security officer uses force in response to verbal provocation, they may face legal consequences, including charges of assault or battery. As a result, it is recommended that security personnel receive training on conflict resolution and effective communication to deal with potentially difficult situations.
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What rule allows local prosecutors to charge Keith with first-degree murder? If you were the prosecutor, discuss why you think you'd be successful prosecuting using this rule.
Hello. You did not report the case Keith is involved in, which makes it impossible for your question to be answered accurately. However, I will try to help you in the best possible way.
Generally speaking, a prosecutor can use the felony murder rule to prosecute someone as possibly guilty of a first-degree murder. This is because the felony murder rule states that there are murders that occur accidentally, or during dangerous activities, and these murders are classified as first-degree murder.
Two constitutional amendments adopted in part because of wartime influences were the 18th, which dealt with _____, and the 19th, whose subject was _____.
prohibition; woman suffrage
The two constitutional amendments adopted in part because of wartime influences were the 18th amendment, which dealt with prohibition, and the 19th amendment, whose subject was woman suffrage.
The 18th amendment prohibited the manufacture, sale, and transportation of intoxicating liquors, while the 19th amendment granted women the right to vote.
Both of these amendments were influenced by wartime events and attitudes, as the 18th amendment was passed in part due to concerns about the impact of alcohol on soldiers during World War I, and the 19th amendment was passed in part due to the contributions of women during the war.
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How is formal authority distinguished and give examples of each characteristic from the SAA case
The correct answer to this open question is the following.
Although there are no options attached and you did not include the SSA case, we can only comment on formal authority.
When we use the term formal authority, we mean that is the kind of power that a company gives to a leader in a corporation. For example, when a new manager is hired by a company, he is granted the power to lead the company or any of its departments. At this moment, the manager has the power and influence over its employees.
However, there is another concept called informal authority, that does not come from the owners of the company or the high hierarchy. It comes from your employees, the people. It is the moment when people trust who you are and follow you for what you have shown, not for your position in the company.
That is why it is so important to have both kinds of authority because it is the best way to lead people under difficult circumstances.
When a case involving diversity of citizenship is tried in federal court, there are two specific jurisdictional requirements that must be met. What are the conditions?A. The plaintiff and the defendant must not reside in the same state and the amount in controversy must be $100,000 or more B. The defendant must live in a foreign country and the plaintiff must reside in the United States C. The plaintiff and the defendant must not reside in the same state and the amount in controversy must exceed $75,000 D. The defendant must be a business entry for example, a corporation and the plaintiff must be a non-business entity E. The plain and the defendant reside in the same state and the amount in controversy must exceed $250,000
The correct answer is option (c) that is the plaintiff and the defendant must not reside in the same state and the amount in controversy must exceed $75,000.
What happens when there is a diversity of citizenship in the case?Diversity jurisdiction is a type of subject-matter jurisdiction in U.S. law that allows U.S. federal courts to hear cases that do not concern a federal question. To exercise diversity jurisdiction, two or more states' residents must be at odds over a dispute of $75,000 or more.
The purpose of this provision is not to allow one state to exercise jurisdiction over another. Diversity of citizenship occurs when the plaintiffs and defendants in a lawsuit do not have common citizenship of any state. That is to say, no one on either side of the argument can claim any common citizenship with anyone else involved in the debate.
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What are the benefits of collective bargaining agreements?
The benefits of collective bargaining agreements include better wages, improved benefits, job security, improved working conditions and a voice in the workplace.
Collective bargaining agreements are contracts between an employer and a union that outline the terms and conditions of employment for workers represented by the union. The benefits are explained as follows:
1. Better wages: Through collective bargaining agreements, workers are able to negotiate for higher wages, ensuring that they are fairly compensated for their work.
2. Improved benefits: Collective bargaining agreements often include provisions for health insurance, retirement plans, and other benefits, which can be more generous than those offered to non-union workers.
3. Job security: Collective bargaining agreements typically include provisions that protect workers from layoffs or unfair dismissal, providing greater job security.
4. Improved working conditions: Collective bargaining agreements can include provisions for safe and healthy working conditions, ensuring that workers are not exposed to unnecessary risks on the job.
5. A voice in the workplace: Through collective bargaining agreements, workers have a voice in decisions that affect their jobs and their working conditions, giving them greater control over their work environment.
Overall, collective bargaining agreements provide a range of benefits for workers, including better wages, improved benefits, greater job security, and a voice in the workplace.
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If a minor purchases alcohols his or her license plate can be suspended under Texas Zero Tolerance policy .
Answer: The answer is yes or true.
Explanation:
Under the Texas Alcoholic Beverage Code § 106.06 the judge can direct the Department of Public Safety to suspend the driver's license or permit of the defendant, to deny the issuance of a driver's license or permit of the defendant for 180 days.
jeremy owes the utility company for a past due account. the past due account became an issue when jeremy went to apply for a car loan. the utility company had put the past due account on jeremy's credit report. jeremy has offered to settle the bill with the utility company by paying them fifty percent of his balance due. the payment would actually constitute consideration because the statute of limitations has run and jeremy has no legal duty to pay the utility company. which of the following terms best describes the agreement between jeremy and the utility company if they reduce it in writing and jeremy is acting in good faith?
The term that best describes the agreement between Jeremy and the utility company, if they reduce it in writing and Jeremy is acting in good faith, is an "Accord and Satisfaction."
This is when a debtor offers to pay a lesser amount than the full amount owed, and the creditor accepts this offer in full settlement of the debt. In this case, Jeremy offers to pay fifty percent of the balance due, and the utility company agrees, creating an accord and satisfaction of the past due account.
What is accord and satisfaction means?
The terms "accord and satisfaction" refer to both the initial agreement (accord) between two contracting parties to accept alternative performance in order to fulfil a prior obligation and the actual fulfilment of that agreement (satisfaction). The new show is referred to as the accord.
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How is the Democratic Party similar in beliefs to the Federalists?
O Both strongly opposed slavery.
O Both were formed because of a dispute.
O Both supported a strong central government.
O Both were organized on federal and state levels.
Answer:
C is the answer
Explanation:
Both supported a strong central government is the Democratic Party similar in beliefs to the Federalists. The correct option is C.
Who were Federalists mostly?The Federalist party consisted primarily of wealthy businessmen, large landowners in the North, and conservative small farmers and entrepreneurs. Geographically speaking, they were mainly in New England, with a significant portion in the Middle Atlantic states.
While the modern Republican party and the Anti-Federalists share a firm conviction as defenders of individual state rights, the modern Democratic party and the Federalists share a belief in a strong central government.
There were many parallels between Federalists and Anti-Federalists. Both favored this young nation and understood that it required a government. Both favored giving Congress the authority to declare war and draft treaties.
Thus, the ideal selection is option C.
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What is Islamic management?
Islamic Management can be defined as an emerging discipline which deals with the management of organizations from the area of the knowledge received from the revealed and other Islamic sources of knowledge. Results in applications compatible with the Islamic beliefs and practices.
Islamic management can also define as means conducting activities depending upon the guidance of Allah and following his Prophet (Peace Be Upon Him) with an accountable mentality, integrity and skills to achieve an objective.